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There's a book written by John Smith (*pseudonym), an American writer, and on the American copy that I have of this book (I'm in the UK) the jacket describes John Smith as 'A Ph.D. in Subject X.'

I take this to mean that the author has completed their Ph.D. (e.g. 'John Smith is a doctor of philosophy in Subject X'). That he is Dr John Smith.

The thing is, when researching John Smith, I discovered that they never completed their Ph.D. - they seem to have started it, achieved ABD (All But Dissertation status), and never completed their thesis.

Publication of this book would have occurred circa two decades after achieving ABD status, so this was by no means a current doctoral candidate still working on their project at the time of publication. On later publications, both of this book and later books, the Ph.D. claim has disappeared. I've found numerous news articles for which this person was interviewed which either imply John Smith completed his Ph.D. or outright state he did, but the institution themselves where John Smith claimed to have graduated have confirmed for me that he did not.

It's unknowable, but given how the publication process typically works it's unlikely anyone other than John Smith himself would have authored the original claim.

So, I'm just wondering, is it common in the US to use this phrasing (e.g. 'he's a Ph.D.' as opposed to 'he's a Ph.D. candidate' or 'he's studying for his Ph.D.') to describe a doctoral candidate who hasn't yet completed their thesis?

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    This question together with your previous question gives the impression that you spend significant effort on investigating other people's (perceived or real) misbehaviour. Are you sure that this is a healthy way to use your time and energy? Commented Dec 2 at 19:50
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    Yes - I research misinformation in my subject area Commented Dec 2 at 19:51
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    In the immediate case, it is possible that this is a consequence of the time it takes to publish a book combined with the expectation that the candidate would complete soon. Perhaps, then, interrupted by outside forces and not corrected. Intentional fraud is also a possibility, of course.
    – Buffy
    Commented Dec 2 at 20:01
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    As mentioned, the information I have suggests the book was published circa 20yrs after John Smith discontinued his studies Commented Dec 2 at 20:14
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    Please do not post answers in the comments, much less answers copied from AI.
    – cag51
    Commented Dec 3 at 1:25

2 Answers 2

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No, it is not common. The convention is that saying someone has (or is) "a Ph.D. in X" does, as you said, mean that they have completed a program of study in X and were awarded a diploma stating that they have received their doctoral degree, majoring in X. Graduate students persuing a Ph.D. are Ph.D. students or Ph.D. candidates (and some universities won't consider a Ph.D. student a Ph.D. candidate until they have passed some preliminary exam.)

The language you observed has disappeared likely because someone pointed out to John Smith that he does not have (and is not) a Ph.D in X, and claiming to have one (or be one), in certain circumstances, would potentially constitute fraud.

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    It sounds like the word used was "is a PhD" rather than "has a PhD" and OP is wondering if it makes a difference. Commented Dec 2 at 19:08
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    Ah, yeah, I've witnessed a few (former...) grad students (math, in the U.S.) describing themselves as "ABD" (all but dissertation), when they hadn't actually passed the prelim exams, or saying "PhD" (imbedded in other words) when they had not finished their thesis. In my experience, these have been people with substantive mental health problems... perhaps not consciously intending to defraud. Commented Dec 2 at 19:12
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    This is a very prominent person and it seems intentional Commented Dec 2 at 19:50
  • @NateEldredge thank you for catching that. Commented Dec 2 at 19:58
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    @AnonymousAcademic444 You've provided enough information in your comments to positively identify this person. His LibraryThing page has the info about the Ph.D., but his Wikipedia and GoodReads pages do not. The New Yorker interview explains the situation.
    – shoover
    Commented Dec 3 at 20:25
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So, I'm just wondering, is it common in the US to use this phrasing (e.g. 'he's a Ph.D.' as opposed to 'he's a Ph.D. candidate' or 'he's studying for his Ph.D.') to describe a doctoral candidate who hasn't yet completed their thesis?

No.

I encounter this phrasing and similar on this website occasionally among writers whose first language is not English, such as "I got a PhD" to mean "I got accepted to a PhD program"; I don't know if this is due to a direct translation issue or just overall lower familiarity with English.

It's possible the description was intentionally misleading, it's also possible that a mistake was introduced by an overzealous editor at some point. Unless this concerns you directly I don't think I'd trouble over it too much.

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    Even here I treat "is a PhD" meaning "is a PhD candidate/student" to be a kind of fraud. It is just sloppy phrasing. After all, PhD means "Doctor of Philosophy". Clearly "I'm a Doctor of Philosophy" would be fraudulent use by a student at any stage. And the distinction between "is" and "has" is too subtle for my taste, especially on a multi-national site.
    – Buffy
    Commented Dec 2 at 19:40
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    @Buffy I wouldn't call it fraud when it's clearly a language mistake from surrounding context, but yes, "is a PhD" should not be used in English to mean "is a PhD student".
    – Bryan Krause
    Commented Dec 2 at 19:44
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    A student in my doctoral cohort added "Ph.D" to his resume before the degree was conferred. He was dismissed from the program for that.
    – Bob Brown
    Commented Dec 2 at 20:40
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    @BryanKrause His dissertation may have been in progress, but was neither complete nor defended.
    – Bob Brown
    Commented Dec 5 at 19:07
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    I think you meant to ping @BenHocking
    – Bryan Krause
    Commented Dec 5 at 19:12

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